GOOD NEWS MOM!
Who should we observe on Mother's Day?
Ancient Mothers who gave me my MOM.

To read the "REAL MOM" you need 
GREEK-ENGLISH Interlinear Bible

Ancient 325 BC 
Alexandrian Greek linguist thought:

Different Mother spellings, have different meanings, i.e. "Step Mother" and "There Mother", are two different Mom meanings and spellings, in Ancient Alexandrian Greek, this is called "POSSESSION" (Alexandrian nouns explain which they are in one word.) .

All Bibles are translated from "Original Koine Greek", i.e. John 19:25-27,  (1-2-3-4)  Mother Greek spellings are translated as one "Mother" meaning
Can (1-2-3-4) Greek spellings be translated into one English word meaning? Yes, if you use Latin influenced Koine Greek
"declension position" sentence structure rule. 

Koine Greek case ending rule, "declension position" forces Gospel John 19:25-27, 1-2-3-4 Mothers to be translated into English etc. as one Mother meaning. However, reading John 19:25-27, in Alexandrian Greek, explains four (1-2-3-4) different Mothers are in the story at the cross.

Ancient Alexandrian Greek case ending rule is "possession" not "position declension", ("possession" is the hidden genius of Greek language).
NOTE "
declension" is a Latin word, it derives from Latin, it is not found in the Greek, this proves Latin language influencing Ancient Greek in Athens Peninsula beginning 146 BC.

30 BC Cleopatra is the direct descendent of Alexander's general Pompey , she spoke Ancient Alexandrian Greek "possession" not Latin influenced Koine "position".
1-2-3-4 Alexandrian Greek = Nouns have "POSSESSION
" not "position".
(1) μήτηρ biological birth, the real Mother God gave you,  google it! (also. Mother country) nominative
(2) μητρὸς  that /their Mother, (the other Mother) genitive
(3) μητέρα new mother to be (active pregnant) accusative
(4) μητρί replaced mother (step
mother, google it!) dative  

WHAT are Greek nom-gen-acc-dat nouns for? 
Alexandrian Greek noun explains "possession" in one word, both Latin and English cannot, they explain "position" (the sentence structure adding words explains which Mother she is by using more words).
In Ancient Alexandrian Greek, John 19:25-27 , explains 1-2-3-4 different mother's (nouns) explaining clearly which Mother she is (noun possession).

EXAMPLE:
"Alexandrian Greek" dative noun possession spells "Step-Mother" in one dative word spelling, using "dative-case-ending" rule.
The Greek letters, μητ is the "stem", and ρὸς is the dative "case ending". This is Alexandrian Greek using one word to spell "Step-Mother", this Mother is called a "Dative Possession" case rule, because Dative in Alexandrian Greek explains to the reader the nouns possession, we can tell this Mother is in the Dative because of the case ending spelling, explaining this Mother is a mother replacement (step mother), not the birth Mother, or there Mother, or expecting Mother. How cool is that!
PROOF: google it! copy/paste "Greek translation of StepMother" (no space), it spells Μητριά. (NOTE: google translator may use uppercase Greek M). 
GOOD NEWS! This rule applies to all Greek nouns, not just Mother nouns. This allows the Bible reader to understand clearly which each noun possession is, which tells the whole story knowing which noun, or which Mother she is in this case.

"Ancient Alexandrian Pompey Cleopatra Greek" was the required Greek to be spoken in 30 BC Egypt and Holy Lands, it's now forgotten and translated as 148 BC, "Koine Greek"= Rome Latin influenced Athens peninsula Greek. A different Latin influenced Koine Greek was spoken in Athens peninsula Greece, see a map it is a separate country and continent, far far away from both Holy Lands and Alexandrian Greek in Egypt.

Apostles spoke Ancient Alexandrian Greek, learning from public synagogue schools teaching the strict LXX (276 BC Septuagint OT Bible), 276 BC is when Jews translated from Hebrew speaking and started speaking "Alexandrian Greek" which made it necessary translate the Hebrew OT Bible into LXX Septuagint Alexandrian Greek, because everyone including Judaism, spoke Alexandrian Greek in Egypt and Holy Lands, not Koine Athens Peninsula Greek as in Greece, i.e. New Yorkers speak different English than Seattle English speakers, and/or southern Texan speakers too, etc., etc.

The Ancient Alexandrian translation: 
Must have a "Greek-English Interlinear Bible" 

John 19:25-27
 "In despite, at the cross of Jesus, were the (1) μήτηρ Biological real Mother of Jesus. And her sister the (2) μητρὸς their mother Mary of Clopas. And Mary the Magdalene. 26 Jesus having seen the (3) μητέρα active pregnant mother and the male student disciple standing by whom he was loving, said to the (4) μητρί step mother, (google it!) Woman! behold the son of you. Then he said to the  male learning student disciple, behold the  (1) μήτηρ Biological real Mother, (of you) and from that hour (she) took her, the male pupil disciple into the (her) own."  

  Only "Mother's" and a 12 year old child (pupil learner Disciple) were at the cross, and because he was young, he was not a threat to the soldiers. All the other Disciples were both afraid and a threat to the soldiers and Jews. John 20:19, "hiding behind locked doors in fear of the Jews". Jews nor Roman soldiers could object Mother's and a young 12 year old child at the cross, but they'd object Peter, armed with a sword! Yes/No? 

Jesus' dying words in Alexandrian Greek:
a) He approved/saw (3) μητέρα his mama, (active 'pregnant' mother).
b) ORDER (3) μητέρα his mama, (active 'pregnant' mother). to parent pupil learner disciple, as her own son.
c) ORDER  male learning disciple, to take (3) μητέρα (active pregnant mother) as his own (1) μήτηρ (Biological real Mother)

PROOF:  "Who owns the home?"
Mary owns home, John couldn't. Acts 12:12, "he (Peter) came to the house of Mary (2) μητρὸς (step mother) of John..." child John can't own unless Mary bought him a house from her substance she supported Jesus ministry? Luke 8:2.  Mary owns the house, not John also called the Mark. Which Mary and John is this? Catholic and KJV (Protestant) answer is, "it's John-Mark, and we do not know who either Mary or John-Mark are, sorry."

It isn't either realistic or logical that  John 19:27, a 12 year old (Learner Disciple John) child owned a home and/or was mentally mature or capable to take care of and move Mom into his home. What 12 year old owns a home today and/or is mature enough to take Mom home and support her? Was it easier to buy real estate in 30 AD than today, can you prove it? Point is this translation isn't logical and isn't correct. LOGIC, Does your teenager own a home to move your Mom into? This is not logical thinking, to dream la la it was easier to buy real estate in Rome 30 AD. google it!

If John didn't move Mother in his home, then a Mother took John home, can Jesus' Mother handle the stress raising another child in her older age? If not Jesus' Mother, then which woman is the new Mother of 12 year old Learner Disciple John? 

Catholic (Mother) Bible EXAMPLE: John 19:25-27
"Now there stood by the cross of Jesus, his (1) mother, and his (2) mother's sister, Mary of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene.  26 When Jesus therefore had seen his (3) mother and the disciple standing whom he loved, he saith to his (4) mother: Woman, behold thy son. 27 After that, he saith to the disciple: Behold thy (1) mother. And from that hour, the disciple took her to his own." NOTE: 400 AD, Catholic Jerome Latin Bible, translated 1-2-3-4 spellings as one "Mother meaning".

KJV translation (Mother) EXAMPLE: 
"
Now there stood by the cross of Jesus his (1) mother, and his (2) mother's sister, Mary the wife of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene. 26 When Jesus therefore saw his (3) mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his (4) mother, Woman, behold thy son! 27 Then saith he to the disciple, Behold thy (1) mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his own home."   NOTE: KJV NT table-contents-structure is same as Jerome's translation table-contents-structure. Compare them, proves KJV copied Jerome's Latin Vulgate.

PROOF, KJV copied First Bible "Greek" Codex Vaticanus, does not have "his". Jerome translated "his" in his Catholic Latin Vulgate, "his" refers, John took Jesus' Mother into "his" own (home). And KJV copied same error from Jerome's Latin Vulgate Bible, adding (home), "his home" is translated from Greek word "the".
Protestant Bibles adding "his", proves KJV copied Catholic Jerome Latin translation, 400 AD Latin Vulgate Bible. Yes/No? Rev "Come out of her my people".

PROOF, Catholic don't and didn't like Magdalene, Pope Gregory the Great about 586 AD, labeled Magdalene a "prostitute", in 1969 Pope John admitted Gregory was in error, Magdalene is not a "prostitute", and Pope John made "Catholic high days" to worship Mary Magdalene, google it! 

In sum, Catholic could not include Magdalene, if Catholic had, we would need a female Pope Mary hierarchy today. SEE BOTH Gospel and Epistle of Barnabus. google it!

PROOF, Acts 15:39, a "serious" disagreement. Barnabus traveled with a group, John is written. John is maybe a 14 year old teenager traveling with John's Mother, that is "Mary", or Mary Magdalene if (4) Mother, is translated as in the Alexandrian Greek "possession" not the Latin influenced Koine Greek declination "position". NOTE: Paul eventually represents Rome, which became "Roman Catholic STATE REQUIRED Church", headquartered in Rome.

PROOF, Catholic Eusebius, structured the first NT Bible table contents "Codex Vaticanus" in Greek. Constantine approved it as his "State Bible". PROOF! Who gave Rome to Catholic Church? Neither Catholic Eusebius representing the Roman Catholic Pope, or Emperor Constantine, could not  translated  mother in Alexandrian Greek, or the State Church would require a female Pope Mary. NOTE: Popes do not allow women, nor Caesars,, they both serve an all male Roman hierarchy. 

PROOF, Jerome 400 AD translated the "Codex Vaticanus"  into "Latin Vulgate", 1611 KJV copied the Jerome "table contents structure". PROOF! Compare Catholic NT table contents to any Protestant Bible, they're the exact same.

(Rev 18:4)  Come out of her... come out of her what? (Rev 17:5) (1) μήτηρ "Biological real Mother of prostitutes". Come out of Mother's of prostitutes Bible table contents structure?

FUN HOMEWORK: (try it you might like it)
"Mother" appears 62 times in the NT. Translate each Mother back into Alexandrian Greek to know which "Mother" she is!

THE 
CORRECT Translation:
 
"Greek-English Interlinear Bible" 

John 19:25-27
 "In despite, at the cross of Jesus, were the (1) μήτηρ Biological real Mother (google it!) of Jesus. And her sister the (2) μητρὸς their mother Mary of Clopas. And Mary the Magdalene. 26 Jesus having seen the (3) μητέρα active pregnant mother and the male student disciple standing by whom he was loving, said to the (4) μητρί step mother, (google it!) Woman! behold the son of you. Then he said to the  male learning student disciple, behold the  (1) μήτηρ Biological real Mother, (of you) and from that hour (she) took her, the male pupil disciple into the (her) own."  

  Only "Mother's" and a 12 year old child (pupil learner Disciple) were at the cross, and because he was young, he was not a threat to the soldiers. All the other Disciples were both afraid and a threat to the soldiers and Jews. John 20:19, "hiding behind locked doors in fear of the Jews". Jews nor Roman soldiers could object Mother's and a young 12 year old child at the cross, but they'd object Peter, armed with a sword! Yes/No? 

  Jesus' dying words at the cross in Alexandrian Greek:
a) He approved/saw (3) μητέρα his mama, (active 'pregnant' mother).
b) ORDER (3) μητέρα his mama, (active 'pregnant' mother). to parent pupil learner disciple, as her own son.
c) ORDER  male learning disciple, to take (3) μητέρα active pregnant mother as his own (1) μήτηρ Biological real Mother.

  PROOF! Mary owns home, John don't. Acts 12:12, "he (Peter) came to the house of Mary (2) μητρὸς step mother of John..." 11 year old child John can't own unless Mary bought him a house from her substance she supported Jesus ministry? Luke 8:2.

  Catholic Eusebius, structured the first NT Bible table contents "Codex Vaticanus" in Greek. Constantine approved it as his "State Bible". PROOF! Who gave Rome to Catholic Church? Neither Catholic Eusebius representing the Roman Catholic Pope, nor Emperor Constantine, could have mother translated in Alexandrian Greek, or the State Church would require a Pope Mary, female Popes do not serve an all male Roman hierarchy. 

  Jerome 400 AD translated the "Codex Vaticanus"  into "Latin Vulgate", 1611 KJV copied the Jerome "table contents structure". PROOF! Compare Catholic NT table contents to any Protestant Bible, they're the exact same.

  (Rev 18:4)  Come out of her... come out of her what? (Rev 17:5) (1) μήτηρ "Biological real Mother of prostitutes". Come out of Mother's of prostitutes Bible table contents structure?


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Ma Mom's StepMom Mommy!
There are four (4) ways to spell "Mother" in Greek,
each spelling mean a different type Mother, this is
called "possession-ship" in ancient 325 AD Alexandrian Greek.
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